1ok subhash but i still think both are the same things
the other said by skipping some steps in between
please everyone help me on this
I know for integration
∫f(ax+b)dx = (1/a)F(ax+b) + c
is this right? i.e. we do everything with ax+b as we wud have done with x and then divide the whole by coeff. of x
is this ok ??
plz ans if this is right then only i may move to my question..
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7 Answers
11this is basically substituting for ax+b =t
and then proceeding
yes u are correct
1ok so you mean whatever i have written holds true for all functions
and for any values of a and b (a ≠0)
is this what you mean ?? subash
11i dint mean that
i only said substitution would be clearer
than this direct formula
1
1its ok was a silly doubt most part of it
thanx
P.S. btw it was not silly it was foolish [4]