If this was true... there would have been no place for scalene triangles..
i mean any triangle would have either been isosceles or equilateral... !!
bisector of an angle divides the triangle into two similar triangles. True or false?. In a.s. Prakashan,it is true. In arihant,it is false.
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4 Answers
rahul
·2012-03-19 21:57:13
johncenaiit
·2012-03-19 23:20:28
i agree with rahul... the triangle should be isosceles for this to be true....
It comes from the Angle bisector theorem : An angle bisector of an angle of a triangle divides the opposite side in two segments that are proportional to the other two sides of the triangle.
Abhinav Gupta
·2012-03-20 08:39:01
Thanks for your time ,guys.
I really needed that angle bisector theorem.