16th December 2008

Which of these is greatest

.9 (0.9999999999999999999................)

1.01 (1.00000000000000.................0001)

1

??

70 Answers

9
Celestine preetham ·

no false ofcourse

62
Lokesh Verma ·

no celestine
is this true?
\lim_{x\rightarrow a}\left\{f(x) \right\} = f \left\{\lim_{x\rightarrow a}x \right\}

9
Celestine preetham ·

.99999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999.................... lies close but to left of 1 in numberline

so its zero only

consider [x] graph now wat is the value of position just left of 1 ?????

another argument

limit h→0- [1 + h] = 0 now wat is 1+h- here ???

its .999999999999999999999999999999.......... only na ?

62
Lokesh Verma ·

celestine.. i am on the verge of giving up hope of explainingthis one to you :D

well how do you know that

.99999999....... < 1

your premise of this assumption is wrong!

hence your assumption that

[.99999999999.......] = 0 is wrong!

9
Celestine preetham ·

contradiction

we all know that greatest integer fn is [ ] non decreasing

now apply [] for 1 1.00000000000...1 and .9999999999999999999.......9

well get 1 ,1,0 as ans contradicting they r equal

now bhaiya i want u to give me any one contradiction to the fact they are unequal

1
greatvishal swami ·

well i m trying some bad resoning
acc to me all r equal to 1
so in my result %error=+-(.00000000000........................1)%
too small to matter

1
? ·

oh the bar does matter !!!!!!.......................

oh k !!... then they all are equal !

1
Akand ·

dude sunil thts wat i did...........hehehe same pinch.......i bet tht hurt....

11
Sunil Kumar ·

if the difference is taken as h and since it is too small thats why it approaches zero.

→ .999999999999bar = lim(1-h) as h approaches zero = 1

and

1.00000000001 = lim (1+h) as h approaches 0 = 1

therefore all three are equal........

1
greatvishal swami ·

sry feeling vry sleepy will join later
one last try
acc to sandwhich theorem other 2 result can tend to 1
only guessing not using pen

goodnight

1
Akand ·

oh ok the that difference is equivalent to h. so lim(1-h)=1 and lim(1+h)=1.......

62
Lokesh Verma ·

have i given the whole answer.?

62
Lokesh Verma ·

vishal u have given a good reasoning...

Can you think in terms of limits?

11
Sunil Kumar ·

Bhaiya i know that 1.00000000001 is greater than 1 but since there is a bar on 0000000 so the difference is too small and it will keep on decreasing....
otherwise the answer should be 1.0000000001

62
Lokesh Verma ·

Good work Sunil and Akand :)

1
~AjInKyA~ ·

final answer
1.000000000000000000000000000001

1
greatvishal swami ·

well one approx assume dat akand
but i will try to reason

62
Lokesh Verma ·

yeah it is bar .....

I will edit the question to make it mroe obvious!

62
Lokesh Verma ·

hmm... but vishal and sunil..

isnt it that 1.0000000000001 > 1 for any number of zeros?

And Akand.. and Unique... isnt it that the difference is very small and will keep decreasing to the minimum??

1
~AjInKyA~ ·

1.0000000000000001 think soooooo
but i dono truth is it bar abov zerorz??

1
Akand ·

i think its 1.00000000001 but i dint understand vishal..........hw r they equal???

1
? ·

1.000000000000000000000000000001

11
Sunil Kumar ·

Really a very good question.....
me too think all 3 are equal.....

62
Lokesh Verma ·

yup Philip you are right in a way..

This was more about the limit thing.. that there are increasing number of zeroes :)

Hopefully the message I was trying to convey went across :)

1
Vicky Chijwani ·

Undoubtedly I write the limit = 0, but that does not mean that x2 is exactly equal to 0 when x tends to 0, right? Does it not mean that x2 tends to 0 when x tends to 0? Does not the entire soul of limits rest on the phrase 'tends to'?

62
Lokesh Verma ·

what do you write in exams?

\lim_{x\rightarrow 0} x^{2} = 0

or?

\lim_{x\rightarrow 0} x^{2} > 0

1
Vicky Chijwani ·

thanx Celestine. :)

9
Celestine preetham ·

yes vicky my vote goes to u

1
Vicky Chijwani ·

Looks like this topic is closed. But anyway, I had a doubt. Consider this:
If lim f(x) = φ
x→a
Then it means that as x tends to a, f(x) tends to φ, it is never exactly equal to φ.
Similarly, if lim (1-h) = φ
h→0+
then it means that as h tends to 0+, 1-h tends to φ, it is never exactly equal to φ.
So, if φ = 0.9, it means that φ tends to 1-, it is never equal to 1.
Infact, isn't this the essence of limits: the concept of tending to a value, but never being exactly equal to it? Is this reasoning not correct? Please help. I'm new to this forum. Thank you.

1
Philip Calvert ·

@ indraneel

once youve proved 0.9bar=1 then the best method to prove 1.0(bar)1=1 is

0.0(bar)1=1-0.9(bar)
1 + 0.0(bar)1=1+(1 - 0.9(bar))
1.0(bar)1=1+0=1 [6]

Your Answer

Close [X]