1now lookin carefully we get that in f-1(x) we can only put integer values and for any integer we get as result all corresponding values greatest integer of which is that integer.
1
vibhav roy
·2008-12-07 06:10:10
so we get that the solution is all integers
62Soory vibhav... you have made a blunder!
62
Lokesh Verma
·2008-12-07 06:10:42
Define the inverse of a function....
OOPSS>>> define a function!
1
vibhav roy
·2008-12-07 06:13:34
so we get that the solution is all integers
62
Lokesh Verma
·2008-12-07 06:14:25
The basic reason why i gave this quesiton was bcos you would jump to this solution :)
seriously :)
I know u are good from all your past solutions and posts you have made here.. but i finally caught u on a wrong concept ;)
1
vibhav roy
·2008-12-07 06:19:00
plz describe my mistake on my chatbox
1well this is really easy
will post my solution later
62
Lokesh Verma
·2008-12-07 06:27:51
no varun!
The answer is not that either!
62
Lokesh Verma
·2008-12-07 06:28:06
you are all making the same mistake
1f(x) doesn't have an inverse ??
62
Lokesh Verma
·2008-12-07 06:31:47
y?
you just gave the inverse!! (so did vibhav!)
1
varun
·2008-12-07 06:32:53
It is not one-one ... it is not bijective ,,,
62
Lokesh Verma
·2008-12-07 06:33:32
not all functions are bijective!!!!!
what about sinx???
62
Lokesh Verma
·2008-12-07 06:35:09
what if i said that what is the solution of
sinx=sin-1x
???
1
varun
·2008-12-07 06:35:24
sin(x) is not bijective but while defining the inverse, we take the set [-Î /2,Î /2] (in which it is bijective)
62
Lokesh Verma
·2008-12-07 06:37:11
yup u are pretty close now..
but then give me the final answer?
1
varun
·2008-12-07 06:41:13
for [x] to have an inverse, [x] must be defined only for integers ..
f(x) = [x] where xεZ.
f(x)=x. and g(x)=f-1(x)=x. Therefore sol = all integers ?
