Sir in 1st part -Q is uniformly distributed because-
We know that electric field inside a conducting sphere is zero.
So,Electric field(due to q) + Electric field(due to Q)=0
But Electric field(due to q) is not equal to zero,so Electric field(due to Q) is not equal to zero,so non-uniformly distributed,is this explanation correct?
Anurag Ghosh Sry in 1st part -Q is non-uniformly distributed because of above explanation?
Akash Anand Statement wise its correct,but not the exact reason.
Anurag Ghosh What should be the correct explanation?
Akash Anand You can better explain it on the basis of electric filed line, which in this case wont be symmetrical..so more line that means ore field and so more induced charge at that point and vice-versa.
