well dont get angry

the question is

\lim_{\mu \rightarrow \inf}\frac{\mu ^{2}+1}{\mu +\mu ^{2}}

there was something dificult with it being one
so i thought if it is not 1 i better know it now than on 12 hehe[1]

8 Answers

1
ANKIT MAHATO ·

oye 1 nahi toh aur kya ho sakta hai .. divide numerator and denominator by μ2 ..

1
Aditya ·

Yes Philip i too think it is 1.......also L'Hospital's rule gives the same thing.

62
Lokesh Verma ·

MORE CORRECT Way!

\frac{\mu^2+1}{\mu^2+\mu}

= \frac{\frac{\mu^2+1}{\mu^2}}{\frac{\mu^2+\mu}{\mu^2}}

= \frac{1+\frac{1}{\mu^2}}{1+\frac{1}{\mu}}

now take limit taking to infinity....

1
ANKIT MAHATO ·

nishant bhaiya .. apna post mein hum bhi toh yahi likhe the .... divide numerator and denominator by μ2 .. .. yeh toh sara sar nainsafi hai ...

11
Mani Pal Singh ·

ANKIT U MADE A VERY VALID STATEMENT

ACCORDING TO ME : UR STATEMENT IS RIGHT THAT IT IS WRONG MATHEMATICAL CONCEPT TO DIVIDE BY μ AS IT TENDS TO INFINITY

BUT I WILL RATHER LIKE TO JUSTIFY SIR AS
WHEN WE HAVE T FIND THE LIMIT OF SAY
limit x2+x4+1+x3/x4
x--->∞

THE USUAL PROCEDURE IS THAT THE HIGHEST COEFFICIENTS OF THIS POLYNOMIAL WILL BE THE ANSWER (STANDARD RULE IN MATHEMATICS)

SO WE HAVE AN ANSWER OF 1 IN THIS CASE
SIMILARLY IN THE QUESTION WE GET THE SAME ANSWER

SO ANSWER TO THE ABOVE QUESTION IS 1

11
Subash ·

Arey what sir did was the essence of limits

μ→∞ not μ=∞

so what sir did was perfectly correct

1
ANKIT MAHATO ·

arey yaro . . hum kab bole ki sir galat hai .. u have not understood what message i wanted to convey thro' my post .. i wanted to say that i the very beginning (post 2) i said that divide the numerator and denominator by μ2 .. but nshant bhaiya mere saath nainsaafi kiye aur apna post pink kar diye ... i said it just jokingly .. [50]

1
Philip Calvert ·

hehe wats so great here
thats buzzing u all

and bhaiyya thank u so much for ur effort but i think u could 've just done by writing 1 over there [1] ...

thanks and sorry to everyone who wasted their time on this thread.. though i just had hoped for a confirmation..

you know friction at two places can be extremely dodgy....so it got to my head...
but the point is that an equation IS for eternity, it represents the truth and noone can deny it hehe pls dont think i am going nuts... there was a physix question........

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