1
krish1092
·2008-12-07 03:06:52
@Nishant
If we don't use leibnitz,then what should be used???
1
varun
·2008-12-07 08:18:17
the options ... I think it sld be in another form ...
1
skygirl
·2008-12-07 07:53:53
me getting 2Π+ Π/12√2...
its a simple prob... i dun think there's ne other correct ans...
if any plz post...
1
krish1092
·2008-12-07 04:31:47
Do you want the options????
1357
Manish Shankar
·2008-12-07 04:19:57
I m also getting same answer as satan
2π + π/12√2
62
Lokesh Verma
·2008-12-07 03:25:12
ok.. gr8 then i will check the answer :)
sorry for underestimating ;)
1
krish1092
·2008-12-07 03:22:58
@Nishant,
I did the same thing which you mentioned,but the answer i get is not there in the given options!!!!
62
Lokesh Verma
·2008-12-07 03:20:31
see there could be 2 ways..
one by lebinitz that you guys are trying.. (that is the easier way out.. without a doubt!)
but i was wondering if you have takn cos x outside.. before differnetiating..
If you have then good... (that is one thing that i was trying to point out!)
If not you will have to dirty your hand..
FIrst take cosx outside. then integrate and then differentiate agian.. (i know it is more stupid!) but for ppl who dont know lebinitz and are afraid to do that :)
1
krish1092
·2008-12-07 03:12:05
@Nishant,
Please post your solution!!
62
Lokesh Verma
·2008-12-07 03:08:27
hmm.. u dont need it dear.. that is what i was trying to say..
you can take cosx outside.. cant you??
1
satan92
·2008-12-07 03:08:11
what are the options given krissh?
1
satan92
·2008-12-07 03:04:54
that gives the direct result
1
satan92
·2008-12-07 03:04:27
ok here is the datailed form
2x(cos2x)/(1+sin2x) - x/8(cosxcosx/4/(1+sin2x/4)
just put x=Ï€
62
Lokesh Verma
·2008-12-07 03:03:30
do u think u really need the lebinitz???
1
krish1092
·2008-12-07 03:03:08
I'm too getting the same answer!
1
krish1092
·2008-12-07 03:02:52
sorry satan,There is no such option given!!
1
satan92
·2008-12-07 03:02:08
ok the answer i am getting is
2π +(π/8)(√2/3)
1
krish1092
·2008-12-07 02:58:30
@satan What answer are you getting
1
satan92
·2008-12-07 02:53:20
by leibnitz's rule
y'(x) = (d(x2)/dx)f(x2) - d(x2/16)/dx(f(x2/16)
where f(x) = the one given in tinside
jut replace π in place of x
62
Lokesh Verma
·2008-12-07 02:46:49
nto yet krish :(
save ur image as a (.jpg.)