limit

lim n→∞ (an + bn)(1/n)

6 Answers

1
nonny chadda ·

a

21
Shubhodip ·

given that b>a>0

1
pandit ·

then its a+b

1
souradeepmajumde majumder ·

ANS IS B.............

STEPS
TAKE b^n common . it comes out as b.
b(1+a/b^n)^1/n

since b>a then a/b fraction. its ^nbecomes 0......... so ans is b(1+0)

that is b

THANKS SOURADEEP MAJUMDER

21
Shubhodip ·

@souradeep
take a^n common answer will be A....:)

though i also think it will be B

my method is

{bn}(1/n)<(an+bn)<{2(b)n}(1/n)

from squeeze thorem it is b

but i dnt hv answer...

got the stuff on net..

1
souradeepmajumde majumder ·

@ SHUBHODIP

B>A THEN IF YOU COMMON A^N THEN B/A IS GREATER THAN 1 THAT TO THE POWER INFINITE IS INFINITE.......

THANKS SOURADEEP MAJUMDER

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