Probability

To be perfectly frank, this question is incomplete.....If we assume that the bowler is really good and does not bowl an extra(no/wide), then the foll. can occur:
1. Dot
2. 1 run
2. 2 runs
4. 3 runs
5. 4 runs
6. 6 runs

Then, probability of winning becomes: 26 = 13

However, the real situation is not as simple as this looks....
This is because we have to consider the probabilities of the bowler bowling an extra ball, and this would reduce the probability a little....

i think this is how it has been solved, in a very naive way.... :)

welcome in advance... :)