A very strange question i encountered

Someone please explain how to begin solving this question. I am stuck.

@Nishant Sir,
Your statement "in the case of a conductor, the potential difference will be zero.. because there can be no electric field inside a conductor" is not correct. The electric field is indeed zero inside a conductor but only under equilibrium condition, which is not the case here. In this case there will be a radial field inside the cylinder if it is conducting. Basically, a conductor is modeled as having an endless supply of mobile charges. In case of metallic conductors, these mobile charges are electrons (as can be established via the Hall effect). When the cylinder rotates there would be a redistribution of charges (its the electrons that do the moving) which would generate a field so as to supply the electrons the required centripetal acceleration. That means the field lines must be directed outwards from the axis. The force then on an electron at a distance r is inwards and is given by eE. This should be the same as the centripetal acceleration mω² r. As such we get the variation of the field as
E(r) = mω² re.
The potential difference between the axis and circumference is therefore
\Delta V =\int_0^R \dfrac{m\omega^2r}{e}\ \mathrm dr = \dfrac{1}{2}\dfrac{m\omega^2R^2}{e}
On the other hand, for a non-conductor the electrons will be bounded to the lattice and so in this case the required centripetal acceleration comes from the lattice itself resulting in a stress in the lattice. But no potential difference will exists in this case.