62
Lokesh Verma
·2009-07-13 04:19:36
I think no..
And i think this can be done by the fact that the no of rationals is countably infinite while irrationals is uncountably infinite
9
Celestine preetham
·2009-07-13 07:05:52
hmm i jus observed a function that satisfies this !
9
Celestine preetham
·2009-07-26 21:31:42
ans
xn+yn =1
where n≥3 ,ε N
it follows from fermats last thm
1
rickde
·2009-07-27 01:28:07
Fermat's Last Theorem states that no three positive integers a, b, and c can satisfy the equation an + bn = cn for any integer value of n greater than two.
but there can be rational numbers satisfying it
so this function can be simultaneously both co-od rational
9
Celestine preetham
·2009-07-27 01:42:55
rickde see #4 carefully again
x=a/c
y=b/c
1
rickde
·2009-07-27 01:58:46
let a,b,c be three rational numbers satisfying a^n+b^n=c^n n>3
so X=a/c so x is rational
similarly y is rational
so we have two rational numbers possible
11
Devil
·2009-07-27 06:55:31
@ rickdie, this is what Celestine wants...
x=ab
y=cd
(ad)n+(bc)n=(bd)n....Get it now?
1
adroit
·2009-09-08 04:07:40
http://www.mathlinks.ro/viewtopic.php?t=299788