I=\int_{0}^{\infty }{e^{-ax}sinx}\: dx = -\left[ \frac{e^{-ax}(asinx+cosx)}{a^2+1}\right]_{0}^{\infty }
I=\frac{1}{a^2+1}
required integral is obtained by putting a=0 which gives I = 1
yes it fails to exist...
this is actually grandi`s series in an integral form
I=\int_{0}^{\infty }{e^{-ax}sinx}\: dx = -\left[ \frac{e^{-ax}(asinx+cosx)}{a^2+1}\right]_{0}^{\infty }
I=\frac{1}{a^2+1}
required integral is obtained by putting a=0 which gives I = 1
sir itw a sfor students... kindly hide or remove your post...
it would help other students to think
rahul.. where did you get this questoin from?
and please try to understand what bhargav is saying
It may help.
also try to find the flaw in bipin's post!