Derivatives

9 Answers

23
qwerty ·

take a=0,c=1 in the first question

so xy=1

so y' =-1/x2

y' < 0

slope of line is -cot\alpha

since it is normal to the curve ,
\frac{{dy}}{{dx}}=tan\alpha

dy/dx < 0 for all x

hence tan(aplha)< 0

1
ajoy abcd ·

second one?

1
ajoy abcd ·

somebody respond....

1
Hodge Conjecture ·

see graph of ex is symmetric about line y=x......so for it to actually touch the line y=x , k should be in fractions( since -ve value of k is not allowed) becoz if k>1 then graph of ex should bend "away" from the line y=x....

so if in the options fractional value of k is given then that should be the ans.. :)

1
jangra28192manoj jangra ·

lets try with graphical approach

1
ajoy abcd ·

second one?

62
Lokesh Verma ·

for the second one the graph of kex touches the line y=x or y=x is the tangent to this curve...

y=kex

If the point of contact is a, a

then first a,a lies on the curve so a=kea

dy/dx = k ea=1 (slope of the line y=x)

so k = e-a

so we have a=1

so the point of contact is 1, 1

and k=1/e

Try the sub part yourself.

6
Kalyan IIT-K Beware I'm coming ·

for second one we can use rolle's theorem???

nishant bhaiya reply...

62
Lokesh Verma ·

cant think of how to!

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